Problem Detail: Can the set of states Q be empty by definition? I was wondering about this question when doing exercises in the pumping lemma for finite automaton.
Asked By : user8272
Answered By : Shaull
In a DFA – no, because the definition includes a single initial state $q_0$, which means that $q_0in Q$, and therefore $Qneq emptyset$. In an NFA, however, this is indeed possible.
Best Answer from StackOverflow
Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/12166 Ask a Question Download Related Notes/Documents
