Let $;f$ be some computable function which holds for almost all strings. The for any $b > 0 $, the property $;f$ is false only on finitely many strings that are incompressible by $b;$.
where “almost all strings” means that as $n$ grows the fraction of strings of length $n$ for which $f$ is false approaches $0$. The book proves the above theorem and says that if we select some sufficiently long string at random, it’s likely that property $f$ would hold true for it. Thus incompressible strings and random strings share this property. Though I understand the proof for the theorem, I am unable to understand its meaning. How does this show there is some sort of relation between incompressible strings and random strings? Also how does this theorem help us? Although I can generate random strings, there is no method to generate incompressible strings in general.
Asked By : sashas
Answered By : Yuval Filmus
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Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/49998