Asked By : Erel Segal-Halevi
Answered By : Erel Segal-Halevi
- Mark our favorite candidates with M and W.
- Our vote is obviously effective only when the candidate I vote for is in tie, either before or after the vote. Assume that in case of tie the order is decided at random; in this case, our vote increases the chance that the candidate will be promoted by 50%.
- If the tie is in positions 1, 2 or 3, then there is no difference between voting for M or for W – in any case, our vote will promote the candidate in 1 position (with 50% probability).
- Also, if another woman got more votes than the candidates in the tie, then there is no difference between M and W, because only the first woman is promoted.
- If the tie is in positions 4, 5, 6, … and there is no woman that got more votes, then there may be a difference:
- If the tie is with another man, then it’s useless to vote for W, because she will win the 4th position anyway. Voting for M will promote him 1 position (with 50% probability).
- If the tie is with another woman, then it’s useless to vote for M, because the woman will win the 4th position anyway. Voting for W will promote her 1 or more positions (with 50% probability), directly to the 4th position.
If the probability of these latter two cases is equal, then voting for W is more effective, because it may promote her more than 1 position. However, without further information about how other people are going to vote, the only information we can use is the relative number of women and men candidates: If the number of men candidates is larger, the first case (tie with a man) is more probable, however, there are fewer women candidates, so in the second case (tie with a woman), the distance between W and the 4th position may be larger, so the promotion will be more effective. Intuitively, it seems that the two effects cancel, so, the “expected number of promoted positions” is equal whether we vote for M and for W. Again, I am not sure. What do you think?
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