How can we justify this recurrence? Recall that $pi(k, u, v)$ is the highest probability for any sequence $y_{−1}…y_k$ ending in the bigram $(u, v)$. Any such sequence must have $y_{k−2} = w$ for some state $w$. The highest probability for any sequence of length $k − 1$ ending in the bigram $(w, u)$ is $pi(k − 1, w, u)$, hence the highest probability for any sequence of length $k$ ending in the trigram $(w, u, v)$ must be $pi(k − 1,w, u) cdot q(v|w, u) cdot e(x_k |v)$
I do not understand why it’s actually true, I think it’s possible to reach $pi(n,u, v)$ from any $(n-1,w, u)$ not actually the maximum one $pi(n-1,w, u)$ just because $q(v|w, u) cdot e(x_k |v)$ might have a higher influence on the resulting $(n,u, v)$ than any $pi(n-1,w, u)$. I would appreciate if anyone could explain me why it’s true.
Asked By : user16168
Answered By : Yuval Filmus
Best Answer from StackOverflow
Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/19093